Check out today’s Step 1 Qmax Question Challenge.
Know the answer? Post it below! Don’t forget to check back for an update with the correct answer and explanation (we’ll post it in the comments section below).
A 49-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of arthralgias, weight loss, diarrhea with fatty stools, and abdominal pain. After careful observation and testing, his physician obtains a biopsy of the lamina propria of the small intestine. The image shows the biopsy specimen.
What is the cause of this man’s symptoms?
A. Celiac sprue
B. Crohn disease
C. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue tumor
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. Whipple disease
Want to know the ‘bottom line?’ Purchase a USMLE-Rx Subscription and get many more features, more questions, and passages from First Aid, including images, references, and other facts relevant to this question.
This practice question is an actual question from the USMLE-Rx Step 1 test bank. For more USMLE Step 1 prep, subscribe to our Flash Facts and Step 1 Express video series. Score the best deal on all three products with a Step 1 Triple Play Bundle.
Categories: USMLE-Rx Step 1 Practice Q's