USMLE-Rx Step 1 Practice Q's

USMLE-Rx Step 1 Qmax Challenge #1616

Check out today’s Step 1 Qmax Question Challenge.

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USMLE-Rx Step 1 Qmax Challenge #1616A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department because of cough, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. A CT of the chest is shown, results are confirmed with bronchoscopy.

Which of the following conditions best describes the patient’s pathology?

A. Adult respiratory distress syndrome
B. Asthma
C. Atelectasis
D. Bronchiectasis
E. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis


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10 replies »

  1. The correct answer is D. Bronchiectasis can be caused by a chronic necrotizing infection of the bronchi, leading to dilated airways (as seen in the vignette image). In addition to bronchopulmonary infections, bronchiectasis can be caused by bronchial obstructions or congenital abnormalities (bronchial cysts, tracheobronchial fistulas). Bronchiectasis is a common cause of hemoptysis and also frequently manifests with cough and dyspnea.

    A is not correct. Adult respiratory distress syndrome causes diffuse alveolar damage that leads to increased alveolar capillary permeability. It does not cause airway dilation.

    B is not correct. Asthma is a condition associated with airway constriction, marked by wheezing. It does not manifest with hemoptysis or airway dilation.

    C is not correct. Atelectasis is alveolar collapse and is not associated with airway dilation.

    E is not correct. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (formerly Churg-Strauss syndrome) is a multisystem disease that commonly affects the lungs. It is characterized by eosinophilia and vasculitis, not airway dilation.


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