Check out today’s Step 2 CK Qmax Question Challenge.
Know the answer? Post it in the comments below! Don’t forget to check back for an update with the correct answer and explanation (we’ll post it in the comments section below).
A 32-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband because of increased lethargy along with a headache, high fever, and new purpuric lesions. One year ago she underwent splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) that failed prednisone therapy. The patient is allergic to ?-lactam agents. Her temperature is 39.6°C (103.2°F), blood pressure is 102/64 mm Hg, pulse is 124/min, and respiratory rate is 19/min. The patient’s husband recalls she had a minor upper respiratory tract infection the previous week that seemed to resolve on its own. On examination the patient is ill appearing, in respiratory distress, and confused. Blood culture reveals gram-positive cocci in chains (see image).
Which of the following therapies is most appropriate to treat this patient’s underlying infection?
Want to know the ‘bottom line?’ Purchase a USMLE-Rx Subscription and get many more features, more questions, and passages from First Aid for the USMLE Step 2 CK, including images, references, and other facts relevant to this question.