This week’s edition of the Step 1 Question of the Week is about psychiatry. See if you can answer the question and then watch the video to learn the correct answer as well as the rationales for each option.
A 48-year-old man comes to the clinic because of a 4-day history of pain in the left ear. His medical history is significant for gout, for which he takes ibuprofen, allopurinol, and probenecid. Otoscopy shows an erythematous, bulging left tympanic membrane. He is prescribed amoxicillin at a reduced dose.
Which of the following drug mechanisms best explains why amoxicillin is prescribed at a reduced dose in this patient?