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USMLERx Step 2 QBank Question #21005

A 2-year-old boy is brought to the clinic for evaluation after 2 days of low-grade tactile fever, irritability, and decreased activity. His mother reports that on waking him this morning, his pillow was stained with a small amount of yellow fluid. His heart rate is 92/min, blood pressure is 104/70 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 22/min, and temperature is 38.8°C (101.°F). His external ear canal is normal, and his otoscopic examination is shown in the image. Which of the following is the most likely bacterial pathogen implicated in this condition?

A. Neisseria meningitidis

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Haemophilus influenzae type B

E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

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Journals to Read for Medical School Success

“You should read more.” This phrase is like a broken record for most senior medical students. For those who, like me, are bewildered about what you should be reading, here’s a short guide to journals that all medical students should be familiar with.

1) New England Journal of Medicine: This is by far the most important journal to read for all medical students, regardless of specialty interest. This journal is where the most innovative new finding are published, and you will often hear your residents and attendings discussing articles from NEJM. An enterprising med student who can discuss a recent article in NEJM could earn some respect with his or her seniors. (But don’t show up the residents, there is no easier way to become hated. It doesn’t matter how much you impress your attending if you do it by alienating your residents, since your residents can make your life very difficult.) NEJM is a great general journal for learning about current issues affecting all physicians.

2) Journal of the American Medical Association: JAMA is also a great general journal for learning about what’s happening in medical practice.

3) Specialty journals: If you already know what specialty you want to go into, start reading early. Watch or ask the residents what they are reading.

4) Any journal article that directly relates to patients you are seeing on the wards: While textbooks are usually easier to read, a journal article usually has more current information about issues that affect patients you are taking care of.

5) Any other journal: Reading more is always better than reading less.

For all of us wondering where to squeeze more time out of our already crunched schedules, here are a few tips:

  • Don’t waste time in transit: Keep a journal or articles to read on the train/plane/bus/subway/people mover.
  • Use your workout time: Read a journal while you are jogging on the treadmill or walking on the elliptical at the gym.
  • Read some journal headlines as check your e-mail everyday. Most journals have a Website where you can sign up for e-mail alerts when a new issue publishes, and you can scan the titles and read abstracts of articles that interest you.

It might seem like a huge undertaking at first, but spending a few minutes a day reading current journal articles will make you a smart and savvy medical student!

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USMLERx Step 1 QBank Question #2000

A 45-year-old man who is of Scandinavian descent presents to the physician with hematuria, left-sided flank pain, and a palpable mass in his left flank. He undergoes a kidney biopsy and is diagnosed with renal cell carcinoma. Radiographic findings suggest metastatic disease to his lung. He is initiated  on a chemotherapy regimen that includes an interleukin-2 (IL-2). Which of the following is the mechanism of action of interleukin-2 (IL-2)?

A. Blocks the ATP-binding site in the bcr-abl  tyrosine kinase domain

B. Causes a decreased blood supply to the tumor

C. Promotes class switching to IgE and IgG

D. Stimulates bone marrow stem cell differentiation

E.  Activates lymphoid cells

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FA Step 2 Casebook: 1-month-old girl with failure to thrive

Case 20 – A 1-month-old girl with failure to thrive

A 1-month-old white girl is sent to the emergency room by her pediatrician for failure to thrive. She was born at full term, weighing 2.72 kg (6 lb), via spontaneous vaginal delivery with no complications. She was discharged to home with her mother and has been feeding well; she takes 3-4 ounces of formula every 2-3 hours. Her parents deny any emesis, fevers, or diarrhea, although her mother notes frequent foul-smelling loose stools. Family history is unremarkable. She lives with her parents and four siblings. She is afebrile with normal vital signs. Her weight is 3.3 kg (7.3 lb) (<5th percentile), length is 50 cm (19.7 in) (<5th percentile), and head circumference is 37 cm (14.6 in) (at 10th percentile). She is cachetic but interactive. The remainder of her examination is unremarkable.

What is the definition of failure to thrive (FTT)?

The term FTT may be attributed to a child who meets any of the following criteria:

  1. Has weight <5th percentile for age and sex
  2. Has depressed weight for height
  3. Has a rate of weight gain that causes a decrease across two or more major percentile lines over time
  4. Has a rate of daily weight gain less than expected for age

What are the two types of FTT?

Organic causes of FTT include:

  1. Abnormal loss of calories
  2. An abnormal need for calories
  3. Failure to ingest an appropriate number of calories
  4. Failure to metabolize

Most cases of FTT are due to nonorganic causes, typically psychosocial factors.

What organic causes of FTT should be considered in patients <6 months old?

  1. Cystic fibrosis
  2. Gastroesophageal reflux
  3. HIV infection
  4. Inborn errors of metabolism
  5. Milk-protein intolerance
  6. Perinatal or postnatal infections
  7. Renal tubular acidosis

While in the hospital the patient feeds well, but despite adequate caloric intake, she fails to gain weight. What tests should be included in the initial work-up of this patient’s cause of FTT?

Malabsorption must be considered when a patient fails to gain weight despite feeding well. Initial screening studies for malabsorption include:

  1. Serum electrolytes, albumin, and total protein
  2. Stool exam for Clostridium difficile, ova, and parasites and stool cultures for bacterial pathogens
  3. Stool exam for occult blood, leukocytes, reducing substances, and pH
  4. Urinalysis and culture

What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient, and how should it be confirmed?

Since this patient is a white person with a history of FTT, malabsorption, and foul-smelling stools, cystic fibrosis must be considered. The next step in the work-up of this patient should be a sweat chloride test, which is the gold standard for the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis.

How should this patient’s malabsorption be treated?

The mainstay of treatment for pancreatic insufficiency in cystic fibrosis is pancreatic enzyme replacement. In addition, patients should receive supplementation of fat-soluble vitamins (vitamins A, D, E, and K).

By Jessica Kagen Hart, Resident, Department of General Pediatrics, Children’s Hospital of Philadelphia; in association with Le TT, Schabelman E, Shivaram A, and Klein J, eds: First Aid Cases for the USMLE Step 2 CK. New York: McGraw-Hill, 2007.

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New Errata for First Aid for the USMLE Step 2 CK

For those still studying for the USMLE Step 2 Clinical Knowledge exam, the First Aid Team has posted errata for the 7th edition of our First Aid for the USMLE Step 2 CK book. You can find it on our Errata page. Please continue sending in any mistakes that you see while reading our various books via this form. You can win an Amazon.com gift certificate for a valid submission!

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FA Step 2 Casebook: 27-year-old woman with fever and cough

Case 19 – A 27-year-old woman with fever and cough

A 27-year-old woman presents to her physician because of 5 days of fever and cough. She has no significant past medical history but has been “fighting colds” for the past 3 months, which she attributed to the winter season. She began having low-grade fevers as well as a dry cough 5 days ago. She has also become increasingly short of breath over the past 2 days. Her temperature is 38.7°C (102°F), heart rate is 110/min, respiratory rate is 24/min, blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation is 90% on room air. Physical examination reveals pallor and oral thrush. Lung auscultation is significant for bilateral crackles and rhonchi throughout. The remainder of her examination is unremarkable. She lives with her husband, who is HIV-positive but is currently asymptomatic. She has no pets and no recent travel history. X-ray of the chest reveals diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrates.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

The patient’s respiratory symptoms, oral thrush, and radiographic findings are most concerning for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) (now called Pneumocystis jiroveci). PCP is an important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised hosts and is a leading cause of opportunistic infection, morbidity, and mortality in patients with HIV. The fact that this patient’s husband is HIV positive makes her chance of also being HIV positive very likely.

What is the next step in diagnosis?

Specific diagnosis of PCP requires documentation of the organism in respiratory specimens. Conventional stains such as toluidine blue O, methenamine silver, or Giemsa can be used to identify the organism. Immunofluorescent staining is the most common technique currently in use.

What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), which acts by inhibiting folic acid synthesis, is considered the drug of choice for all forms of pneumocystosis. Therapy is continued for 14 days in non-HIV-infected patients and for 21 days in persons infected with HIV. In patients with severe PCP, corticosteroids given in conjunction with anti-Pneumocystis therapy, decreases the incidence of mortality and respiratory failure.

What findings would one expect to see on high-resolution computed tomography (HRCT)?

A patchy or nodular ground-glass appearance is the most common finding of PCP on HRCT. HRCT has a high sensitivity for PCP among HIV-positive patients.

What prophylactic therapy should this patient use for her condition?

Indications for prophylaxis of PCP in HIV-positive patients include:

  1. History of PCP
  2. CD4 cell count <200/mm³
  3. History of oropharyngeal candidiasis

Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is the preferred prophylactic regimen. Other options include pentamidine, dapsone, and atovaquone. Oral TMP-SMX is also useful in preventing toxoplasmosis and bacterial infections.

By Jessica Kagen Hart, Resident, Department of General Pediatrics, Children’s Hospital of Philadelphia; in association with Le TT, Schabelman E, Shivaram A, and Klein J, eds: First Aid Cases for the USMLE Step 2 CK. New York: McGraw-Hill, 2007.

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How important are Step 2 scores to your residency application?

The residency application and the interview process is really a long job interview. It can feel like an interrogation as your whole medical career is put under the microscope. Without ever having met you, a residency program board will decide if they find you interesting enough to invite for an interview. Not only do you have to look good on paper, with strong academic performance, you also have to fit into the culture of the program. You need to be able to interact well with the administration, faculty and other residents of the program to which you’re applying. Program directors are tasked with the decision of determining if they should invest 3-5 years of their time, money and effort to train you. This decision will be made without having much interaction with you, the applicant, and thus your application has to speak for itself.

Strong applications are often accompanied with strong United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Step 1 scores, however Step 2 has recently been gaining in importance. During our research, we found that the criteria of multiple residency programs listed Step 2 as a requirement to be rank eligible. We decided to investigate if this was in fact becoming a trend in residency selection. Particularly since there is evidence to suggest that students are often misinformed about what components are most important to their residency application.

Comparing the residency application criteria of several programs however, we found that the actual criteria used for rank eligibility are not readily available. Luckily, we were able to find this wayward info in two recent surveys published in Academic Medicine. In the surveys published in 1999 and 2006 the authors respectively polled between 1200 and 2500 programs directors. They were asked to evaluate the variables used to select residents, and determined that the top five selection criteria were (1) grades in required clerkships, (2) USMLE Step 1 scores, (3) grades in senior electives in specialty, (4) number of honors grades, and (5) USMLE Step 2 Clinical Knowledge (CK) score.

It is important to note that with the exception of the USMLE Step 1 score all the other criteria are measures of clinical performance. Measures of clinical performance are valuable as they are the best indicator of how a candidate will perform in a program. In fact, one member of a residency selection committee told us during an interview that, “No matter how good a candidate’s application, if USMLE Step 2 scores were not available with the application the candidate would be wait listed”. While this may not be generalizable it is clear that an increasing number of programs are viewing Step 2 as an integral part of a residency application.

It is therefore in the best interest of candidates to have this exam done in time for the scores to be available with the residency application.  Taking the exam in June or July ensures that scores will be available for the Match period that begins in September. The more complete your application is in terms of required documents the more weight you give your application to make it through on the first selection of candidates.

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FA Step 2 Casebook: 60-year-old man with significant bleeding

Case 18 – A 60-year-old man with significant bleeding

A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of a persistent nosebleed. His nose began bleeding spontaneously about 3 hours ago, and he has not been able to get it to stop despite direct pressure and ice packs. He denies trauma, blood disorders, cancer, or a family history of hematologic or oncologic problems. He has gastroesophageal reflux disease, for which he recently increased his dose of cimetidine, and atrial fibrillation, for which he takes metoprolol and warfarin. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 90/min, and respiratory rate is 10/min. Physical examination is notable for crusted blood around his left nasal ala and slowly oozing bright red blood from his left nostril. He also has small conjunctival hemorrhages and a large bruise on his knee. The remainder of his physical examination is unremarkable, including a regular heart rate and rhythm and normal chest, abdominal, and neurologic examinations. Laboratory tests show:

WBC count: 6000/mm³
Hemoglobin: 13.5 g/dL
Hematocrit: 40%
Platelet count: 350,000/mm³
International Normalized Ratio: 12.5
Prothrombin time: Normal

What conditions should be included in the differential diagnosis?

The differential diagnosis of clinically significant hemorrhage includes trauma and disorders of hemostasis, specifically problems with platelet quantity (thrombocytopenia) and quality or clotting factor deficiency. Inherited (hemophilia, von Willebrand’s disease) and acquired (hematologic malignancy, bone marrow dysfunction, liver disease, medication, autoimmune) diseases may have identical clinical presentations, albeit frequently in different patient populations.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

This patient has clinically significant, persistent bleeding (epistaxis and other hemorrhagic phenomena) in the context of an International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 12.5 while receiving warfarin therapy. Although he may have an underlying malignancy or inherited bleeding disorder, his entire clinical presentation can be explained by his medications. Cimetidine inhibits the cytochrome P450 (CYP450) system of drug metabolism (a hepatic enzymatic system that metabolizes drugs for excretion), and warfarin is metabolized by this system. Thus, a recent increase in cimetidine dosage in a patient who takes warfarin could easily lead to dangerously high warfarin levels, evidenced in this patient by severe bleeding and a high INR.

What other risk factors are associated with this condition?

Medications and other compounds that induce the CYP45 system include:

  1. Alcohol
  2. Barbiturates
  3. Carbamazepine
  4. Dexamethasone
  5. Griseofulvin
  6. Phenytoin
  7. Quinidine
  8. Rifampin

Medications and other compounds that inhibit the CYP45 system include:

  1. Cimetidine
  2. Clarithromycin
  3. Erythromycin
  4. Grapefruit juice
  5. Isoniazid
  6. Ketoconazole
  7. Ritonavir

What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

In patients with either severe bleeding or an INR >20 (risk factor for intracranial hemorrhage), immediate cessation of warfarin and CYP450 inhibitors is crucial. This patient should also receive nasal packing, as well as admission for observation and serial neurologic exams (for intracranial hemorrhage monitoring), INR assessments, and hemoglobin levels. Finally, this patient should be counseled to use a different histamine blocker for his gastroesophageal reflux disease, such as ranitidine, to avoid this complication in the future.

By Brian Ash, MD, Resident in Anesthesia and Perioperative Care, University of California, San Francisco Medical Center; in association with Le TT, Schabelman E, Shivaram A, and Klein J, eds: First Aid Cases for the USMLE Step 2 CK. New York: McGraw-Hill, 2007.

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Step 1 Casebook – Statins

A woman rushes her 65-year-old husband into the emergency department after he said he felt crushing chest pain while eating a steak. Blood work is ordered and the physician finds that the man’s cholesterol is very high and that the man most likely had an acute myocardial infarction because of the finding of elevated enzymes. After consultation, the man is put on statins to lower his cholesterol level and told to avoid a fatty diet.

What are statins?

Statins are a class of hypolipidemic agents. They act to lower cholesterol by inhibiting 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) reductase, the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis.

How do statins affect LDL, HDL, and triglyceride levels?

Statins decrease LDL levels greatly. They have been shown to mildly increase HDL levels and to decrease triglycerides as well.

What is the most effective agent for increasing HDL cholesterol levels?

Niacin has been shown to increase HDL better than most other drugs.

What agent is best suited for decreasing triglyceride levels?

A class of drugs known as “fibrates,” including gemfibrozil and clofibrate, has been shown to greatly diminish triglyceride levels.

What are some of the side effects of statins?

Side effects of this class of drugs include myositis and a reversible increase in liver function tests such as alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase.

Why is it dangerous to combine statins and fibrates?

This drug combination significantly increases the risk of rhabdomyolysis.

By Rakesh Razdan Ahuja, class of 2010, Yale University School of Medicine; in association with Le TT, Takiar V, eds: First Aid Cases for the USMLE Step 1. New York: McGraw-Hill, 2009.

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FA Step 2 Casebook: 29-year-old woman with substance dependence

Case 17 – A 29-year-old woman with substance dependence

A 26-year-old G7P3 woman at 34 weeks’ gestation presents to the emergency department because she feels she is beginning to experience contractions and does not have an obstetrician to consult. On examination her pupils are dilated and she appears agitated and nervous. She then changes her mind and says she does not want further evaluation because it has been too long since her last “smoke.” She is adamant about needing to leave right away. Upon further questioning, she states that if she does not get to smoke soon, she will become very sleepy and depressed, and will have intense food cravings. She has been in inpatient drug rehabilitation twice but always relapses back to her drug of choice. She is currently living at a halfway house, is on welfare, and does not have custody of any of her 3 children. “They will probably take this one away from me, too,” she adds as she begins to cry. She says she used to be able to get high for $10 per day, but now it costs up to $100 per day. She affords her habit by trading drugs and money for sex; she has not been tested for HIV or other sexually transmitted diseases in recent memory.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cocaine dependence. This patient exhibits the classic signs of addiction: she has tolerance for the drug (requires more to achieve the same effect), and experiences withdrawal symptoms without it. She has continued to use cocaine despite the negative consequences it brings, and she has been unable to bring herself to stop using despite many attempts. Smoking cocaine results in feelings of euphoria and heightened energy, while depression, hunger, and sleepiness are symptoms of withdrawal. The criteria for substance dependence can be remembered using the mnemonic WITHDrawIT:

  1. Withdrawal
  2. Interest or important activities given up or reduced
  3. Tolerance
  4. Harm (physical and psychosocial) with continued use
  5. Desire to cut down or control use
  6. Intended time/amount of use exceeded
  7. Time spent obtaining/using the substance is increased

What behavioral changes are associated with cocaine use?

Behavioral changes may include:

  1. Blunting of feelings
  2. Decreased appetite
  3. Euphoria and increased energy
  4. Heightened anxiety, irritability, or anger
  5. Hypervigilance and heightened alertness
  6. Impaired judgment
  7. Increase in sexual excitement and spontaneous ejaculation
  8. Increased risk for psychosis
  9. Increased self-confidence
  10. Interpersonal sensitivity

What physical changes are associated with cocaine use?

Physical changes may include:

  1. Chest pain and/or arrhythmias due to vasospasm in coronary arteries
  2. Confusion, seizures, stupor, or coma
  3. Diaphoresis or chills
  4. Dilated pupils
  5. Increased pulse and blood pressure due to vasoconstriction
  6. Muscle weakness, dystonia, or dyskinesia
  7. Nausea or vomiting
  8. Psychomotor slowing or agitation
  9. Respiratory depression
  10. Weight loss

What are the risks of cocaine use to the patient’s unborn child?

Since cocaine readily crosses the placenta and is metabolized slowly in fetuses, they can be exposed to significant levels of cocaine for long periods. Because of its vasoconstrictive properties, cocaine use increases the risk of fetal hypoxia and abruptio placentae.
In humans the most common consequences of cocaine abuse during pregnancy include premature birth, lower birth weight, respiratory distress, bowel infarctions, cerebral infarctions, reduced head circumference, and increased risk of seizures. Behaviorally, these newborns show an increased degree of tremulousness, crying, and irritability, and are overreactive to environmental stimuli. Within a month of birth these behaviors recover dramatically, but never to normal levels. It is important to remember that cocaine can be found in breast milk up to 60 hours after the last use.

By Kristen Vierregger, University of Pennsylvania School of Medicine, Class of 2008; in association with Le TT, Schabelman E, Shivaram A, and Klein J, eds: First Aid Cases for the USMLE Step 2 CK. New York: McGraw-Hill, 2007.

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